Question by Mrs. V : California Domestic Violence/Restraining Order Help? Can a restrained person stop payment on all bills, mortgage, utilities, etc. when it says in restraining order “Neither party shall transfer, borrow against, sell, hide, or get rid or or destroy any property, including animals, except in the normal course of business or for necessities of life.”
Restrained spouse has stopped paying mortgage and all other bills. The restrained person bought a truck for his wife in both their names. Then took her off the account and told her “through the grapevine” that she has ’til the end of the month to pay. If he purposely stops paying does that count as a violation as it is worded above?
Since his arrest, wife has been staying at the house. No one knows where he is but he has stopped paying on everything. He controlled all finances, all outings, activities, for 8+ years. She was not allowed to go to church she wanted to go to, speak to or see her family, or get a job. She has no income, no real resources of any kind. I feel like its almost an indirect threat (which I know isn’t anything you can call the cops about) but like he’s purposely cutting her off because he knows she doesn’t have anything and is wondering if he can wait her out til she goes back to him or just wait til HIS house is foreclosed on and SHE is kicked out…but that’s me rambling…back to the actual question: Is stopping payment on all bills/property/etc a violation in anyway?
Thanks in advance for anyone who takes the time to answer. Running out of resources here. Doing my best to help from across the country.
. Best answer:
Answer by Shake That Bear!
Good for him.
Why the fvck should he keep paying her bills?
I love how you consider his non payment of her bills to be ‘controlling’ and ‘abuse’.
Good god, american women are disgusting.
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